Honors Bio Review Questions Midterm B 2004-05

Modified True/False

Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the sentence or statement true.

____ 1. Cellular respiration releases energy by breaking down glucose in the presence of carbon dioxide. _________________________

____ 2. If an animal cell stops carrying out cellular respiration, it will die. _________________________

____ 3. The products of glycolysis are 2 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvic acid molecules. _________________________

____ 4. Either cellular respiration or fermentation can be used to release energy, depending on the presence of carbohydrates. _________________________

Figure 9-1

____ 5. The pathway labeled A in Figure 9-1 is called glycolysis. ______________________________

____ 6. If carbon dioxide is present, the pathway labeled C in Figure 9-1 usually will not occur. _________________________

____ 7. The Krebs cycle releases energy in the form of ATP. _________________________

____ 8. Without the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain would produce very few ATPs. _________________________

____ 9. carry electrons from the Krebs cycle to the electron transport chain. _________________________

____ 10. In prokaryotes, the electron transport chain is located in the inner membrane of the mitochondria. _________________________

____ 11. If you swim aerobically for 30 minutes, your body has probably started to break down stored molecules, such as fats, for energy. _________________________

____ 12. The first few seconds of intense exercise use up the cell’s stores of fat. _________________________

____ 13. During the course of a long race, a person’s muscle cells will use both cellular respiration and lactic acid fermentation to produce ATP. _________________________

____ 14. The reactants of photosynthesis are the same as the reactants of cellular respiration. _________________________

____ 15. During photosynthesis, energy is stored in the form of fats. _________________________

____ 16. As a cell’s size increases, its ratio of surface area to volume increases. _________________________

____ 17. As a cell’s size increases, it places more demands on its DNA. _________________________

____ 18. The smaller a cell is, the more difficult it is for the cell to move enough materials across its cell membrane. _________________________

____ 19. Cell division solves the problem of cell growth by increasing cell volume. _________________________

____ 20. An imaginary cubic cell with a side length of 10 mm would have a ratio of surface area to volume of 6 : 10. _________________________

____ 21. Most of a cell’s growth takes place during the phase of the cell cycle. _________________________

____ 22. A cell’s chromosomes are duplicated during interphase. _________________________

____ 23. If it takes a cell one hour to undergo mitosis, about 50 minutes of the time would be spent in prophase. _________________________

Figure 10-2

____ 24. The structure shown in Figure 10-2 is a replicated chromosome. _________________________

____ 25. Typically, the longest phase of mitosis is metaphase. _________________________

____ 26. A cell splits into two daughter cells during telophase. _________________________

____ 27. Normal cells stop growing when they come into contact with other cells. _________________________

____ 28. Proteins called cyclins help regulate the cell cycle. _________________________

____ 29. Cancer is a disorder in which some of the body’s cells lose the ability to control growth and division. _________________________

____ 30. Lack of control over mitosis is the cause of all cancers. ______________________________

____ 31. A trait is a specific characteristic that varies from one individual to another. _________________________

____ 32. Gregor Mendel concluded that the tall plants in the P generation passed the factor for tallness to the F₁ generation. _________________________

____ 33. An organism with a dominant allele for a particular form of a trait will sometimes show that trait. _________________________

____ 34. True-breeding plants that produced axial flowers were crossed with true-breeding plants that produced terminal flowers. The resulting offspring produced terminal flowers because the allele for terminal flowers is recessive. _________________________

____ 35. When alleles segregate from each other, they join. _________________________

____ 36. If the alleles for a trait did not segregate during gamete formation, offspring would always show the trait of at least one of the parents. _________________________

____ 37. The principles of probability can explain the numerical results of Mendel’s experiments. _________________________

____ 38. The probability that a gamete produced by a pea plant heterozygous for stem height (Tt) will contain the recessive allele is 100%. _________________________

____ 39. If roan cows and roan bulls are mated, according to the principle of codominance, 25% of the offspring are expected to be roan. _________________________

____ 40. Coat color in rabbits is determined by a single gene that has multiple alleles. _________________________

____ 41. If an organism has 16 chromosomes in each of its egg cells, the organism’s diploid number is 32. _________________________

____ 42. If an organism is heterozygous for a particular gene, the two different alleles will be separated during anaphase II of meiosis, assuming that no crossing-over has occurred. _________________________

____ 43. Mitosis results in two cells, whereas meiosis results in one cell. _________________________

____ 44. If an organism has four linkage groups, it has eight chromosomes. _________________________

____ 45. Genes in the same linkage group are usually inherited separately. _________________________

____ 46. In eukaryotes, DNA replication proceeds in one direction down the DNA molecule. _________________________

____ 47. The replication of a DNA molecule results in four copies of the same gene. _________________________

____ 48. DNA is tightly wrapped around nucleosomes. _________________________

____ 49. If a nucleic acid contains uracil, it is DNA. _________________________

____ 50. The nitrogenous bases in RNA are able to form hydrogen bonds with each other. _________________________

____ 51. During DNA replication, only one strand of DNA serves as a template. _________________________

____ 52. A codon consists of four nucleotides. _________________________

____ 53. The anticodon AGA is complementary to the codon TCT. _________________________

____ 54. Genes determine a person’s eye color by coding for nitrogenous bases that affect eye color. _________________________

____ 55. DNA codes for DNA polymerase. _________________________

____ 56. Without regulatory sites, the expression of a gene would not be controlled. _________________________

____ 57. In prokaryotes, an operon is a group of genes that are operated together. _________________________

____ 58. Gene regulation in eukaryotes is less complex than in prokaryotes. _________________________

____ 59. The TATA box in eukaryotes helps to ensure transcription. _________________________

____ 60. In fruit flies, the hox gene that controls the development of the wings is located before the hox gene that controls the development of the eye and before the hox gene that controls the development of the tail. _________________________

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 61. Which of the following is NOT a stage of cellular respiration?

a.	fermentation
b.	electron transport
c.	glycolysis
d.	Krebs cycle

____ 62. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?

a.	glycolysis ® fermentation ® Krebs cycle
b.	Krebs cycle ® electron transport ® glycolysis
c.	glycolysis ® Krebs cycle ® electron transport
d.	Krebs cycle ® glycolysis ® electron transport

____ 63. Which of the following is released during cellular respiration?

a.	oxygen
b.	air
c.	energy
d.	lactic acid

____ 64. Cellular respiration uses one molecule of glucose to produce

a.	2 ATP molecules.
b.	34 ATP molecules.
c.	36 ATP molecules.
d.	38 ATP molecules.

____ 65. What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?

a.	6O2 + C6H12O6 ® 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b.	6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy ® 6CO2 + 6H2O
c.	6CO2 + 6H2O ® 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d.	6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy ® 6O2 + C6H12O6

____ 66. Cellular respiration releases energy by breaking down

a.	food molecules.
b.	ATP.
c.	carbon dioxide.
d.	water.

____ 67. What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?

a.	oxygen and lactic acid
b.	carbon dioxide and water
c.	glucose and oxygen
d.	water and glucose

____ 68. Which of these is a product of cellular respiration?

a.	oxygen
b.	water
c.	glucose
d.	all of the above

____ 69. Which of these processes takes place in the cytoplasm of a cell?

a.	glycolysis
b.	electron transport
c.	Krebs cycle
d.	all of the above

____ 70. Glycolysis provides a cell with a net gain of

a.	2 ATP molecules.
b.	4 ATP molecules.
c.	18 ATP molecules.
d.	36 ATP molecules.

____ 71. The starting molecule for glycolysis is

a.	ADP.
b.	pyruvic acid.
c.	citric acid.
d.	glucose.

____ 72. Glycolysis requires

a.	an energy input.
b.	oxygen.
c.	hours to produce many ATP molecules.
d.	NADP^+.

____ 73. Which of the following is NOT a product of glycolysis?

a.	NADH
b.	pyruvic acid
c.	ATP
d.	glucose

____ 74. Which of the following acts as an electron carrier in cellular respiration?

a.	NAD^+
b.	pyruvic acid
c.	ADP
d.	ATP

____ 75. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in

a.	bread dough.
b.	any environment containing oxygen.
c.	muscle cells.
d.	mitochondria.

____ 76. The two main types of fermentation are called

a.	alcoholic and aerobic.
b.	aerobic and anaerobic.
c.	alcoholic and lactic acid.
d.	lactic acid and anaerobic.

____ 77. One cause of muscle soreness is

a.	alcoholic fermentation.
b.	glycolysis.
c.	lactic acid fermentation.
d.	the Krebs cycle.

____ 78. Which process is used to produce beer and wine?

a.	lactic acid fermentation
b.	glycolysis
c.	alcoholic fermentation
d.	the Krebs cycle

____ 79. Milk is converted to yogurt under certain conditions when the microorganisms in the milk produce acid. Which of these processes would you expect to be key in the production of yogurt?

a.	the Krebs cycle
b.	photosynthesis
c.	alcoholic fermentation
d.	lactic acid fermentation

____ 80. During lactic acid fermentation,

a.	NAD^+ is regenerated, allowing glycolysis to continue.
b.	glucose is split into three pyruvic acid molecules.
c.	oxygen is required.
d.	3 ATP molecules are produced.

____ 81. The conversion of pyruvic acid into lactic acid requires

a.	alcohol.
b.	oxygen.
c.	ATP.
d.	NADH.

____ 82. In the presence of oxygen, glycolysis is followed by

a.	lactic acid fermentation.
b.	alcoholic fermentation.
c.	photosynthesis.
d.	the Krebs cycle.

____ 83. Cellular respiration is called an aerobic process because it requires

a.	light.
b.	exercise.
c.	oxygen.
d.	glucose.

____ 84. Which organism is NOT likely to carry out cellular respiration?

a.	tree
b.	mushroom
c.	anaerobic bacterium
d.	tiger

____ 85. The starting molecule for the Krebs cycle is

a.	glucose.
b.	NADH.
c.	pyruvic acid.
d.	coenzyme A.

____ 86. The Krebs cycle does not occur if

a.	oxygen is present.
b.	fermentation occurs.
c.	glycolysis occurs.
d.	carbon dioxide is present.

____ 87. During one turn, the Krebs cycle produces

a.	oxygen.
b.	lactic acid.
c.	electron carriers.
d.	glucose.

____ 88. The Krebs cycle starts with

a.	lactic acid and yields carbon dioxide.
b.	glucose and yields 32 ATPs.
c.	pyruvic acid and yields lactic acid or alcohol.
d.	pyruvic acid and yields carbon dioxide.

____ 89. The electron transport chain can be found in

a.	prokaryotes.
b.	animals.
c.	plants.
d.	all of the above

____ 90. In eukaryotes, electron transport occurs in the

a.	mitochondria.
b.	chloroplasts.
c.	cell membrane.
d.	cytoplasm.

____ 91. Which of the following passes high-energy electrons into the electron transport chain?

a.	NADH and FADH2
b.	ATP and ADP
c.	citric acid
d.	acetyl – CoA

____ 92. Each pair of high-energy electrons that moves down the electron transport chain provides enough energy to

a.	transport water molecules across the membrane.
b.	convert 3 ADP molecules into 3 ATP molecules.
c.	convert carbon dioxide into water molecules.
d.	break glucose into pyruvic acid.

____ 93. The energy of the electrons passing along the electron transport chain is used to make

a.	lactic acid.
b.	citric acid.
c.	alcohol.
d.	ATP.

____ 94. Breathing heavily after running a race is your body’s way of

a.	making more citric acid.
b.	repaying an oxygen debt.
c.	restarting glycolysis.
d.	recharging the electron transport chain.

____ 95. When the body needs to exercise for longer than 90 seconds, it generates ATP by carrying out

a.	lactic acid fermentation.
b.	alcoholic fermentation.
c.	cellular respiration.
d.	glycolysis.

____ 96. If you want to control your weight, how long should you exercise aerobically each time that you exercise?

a.	at least 90 seconds
b.	less than 15 minutes
c.	15 to 20 minutes
d.	more than 20 minutes

____ 97. The energy needed to win a 2-minute footrace is produced mostly by

a.	lactic acid fermentation.
b.	cellular respiration.
c.	using up stores of ATP.
d.	breaking down fats.

____ 98. Which statement mainly explains why even well-conditioned athletes have to pace themselves for athletic events that last several hours?

a.	Lactic acid fermentation can cause muscle soreness.
b.	Heavy breathing is needed to get rid of lactic acid.
c.	Cellular respiration releases energy more slowly than fermentation does.
d.	all of the above

____ 99. All of the following are sources of energy during exercise EXCEPT

a.	stored ATP.
b.	alcoholic fermentation.
c.	lactic acid fermentation.
d.	cellular respiration.

____ 100. Which process does NOT release energy from glucose?

a.	glycolysis
b.	photosynthesis
c.	fermentation
d.	cellular respiration

____ 101. How are cellular respiration and photosynthesis almost opposite processes?

a.	Photosynthesis releases energy, and cellular respiration stores energy.
b.	Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, and cellular respiration puts it back.
c.	Photosynthesis removes oxygen from the atmosphere, and cellular respiration puts it back.
d.	all of the above

____ 102. Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as cellular respiration is to

a.	chloroplasts.
b.	cytoplasm.
c.	mitochondria.
d.	nuclei.

____ 103. Unlike photosynthesis, cellular respiration occurs in

a.	animal cells only.
b.	plant cells only.
c.	all but plant cells.
d.	all eukaryotic cells.

____ 104. Plants cannot release energy from glucose using

a.	glycolysis.
b.	photosynthesis.
c.	the Krebs cycle.
d.	cellular respiration.

____ 105. The products of photosynthesis are the

a.	products of cellular respiration.
b.	reactants of cellular respiration.
c.	products of glycolysis.
d.	reactants of fermentation.

____ 106. As a cell becomes larger, its

a.	volume increases faster than its surface area.
b.	surface area increases faster than its volume.
c.	volume increases, but its surface area stays the same.
d.	surface area stays the same, but its volume increases.

____ 107. As a cell grows, it

a.	places more demands on its DNA.
b.	uses up food and oxygen more quickly.
c.	has more trouble moving enough materials across its cell membrane.
d.	all of the above

____ 108. If the length of a cell increases 10 times, its volume increases about

a.	5 times.
b.	10 times.
c.	100 times.
d.	1000 times.

____ 109. The speed with which wastes are produced by a cell depends on the cell’s

a.	ratio of surface area to volume.
b.	environment.
c.	volume.
d.	surface area.

____ 110. All of the following are problems that growth causes for cells EXCEPT

a.	DNA overload.
b.	excess oxygen.
c.	obtaining enough food.
d.	expelling wastes.

____ 111. Compared to small cells, large cells have more trouble

a.	dividing.
b.	producing daughter cells.
c.	moving needed materials in and waste products out.
d.	making copies of their DNA.

____ 112. The process by which a cell divides into two daughter cells is called

a.	cell division.
b.	metaphase.
c.	interphase.
d.	mitosis.

____ 113. Which of the following is NOT a way that cell division solves the problems of cell growth?

a.	Cell division provides each daughter cell with its own copy of DNA.
b.	Cell division increases the mass of the original cell.
c.	Cell division increases the surface area of the original cell.
d.	Cell division reduces the original cell’s volume.

____ 114. If a normal cell divides, you can assume that

a.	its surface area has become larger than its volume.
b.	its volume has become larger than its surface area.
c.	it has grown to its full size.
d.	it has grown too large to meet its needs.

____ 115. If a cell’s DNA were not copied before cell division, the cell could

a.	have a DNA overload.
b.	become cancerous.
c.	fail to exchange materials.
d.	divide.

____ 116. Which of the following happens when a cell divides?

a.	The cell’s volume increases.
b.	It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients.
c.	The cell has DNA overload.
d.	Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cell’s DNA.

____ 117. When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?

a.	only during interphase
b.	only when they are being replicated
c.	only during cell division
d.	only during the G1 phase

____ 118. Which of the following is a phase in the cell cycle?

a.	G1 phase
b.	G2 phase
c.	M phase
d.	all of the above

____ 119. Which pair is correct?

a.	G1 phase, DNA replication
b.	G2 phase, preparation for mitosis
c.	S phase, cell division
d.	M phase, cell growth

____ 120. When during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA replicated?

a.	G1 phase
b.	G2 phase
c.	S phase
d.	M phase

____ 121. Which event occurs during interphase?

a.	The cell grows.
b.	Centrioles appear.
c.	Spindle fibers begin to form.
d.	Centromeres divide.

____ 122. Which of the following is a correct statement about the events of the cell cycle?

a.	Little happens during the G1 and G2 phases.
b.	DNA replicates during cytokinesis.
c.	The M phase is usually the longest phase.
d.	Interphase consists of the G1, S, and, G2 phases.

____ 123. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about the events of the cell cycle?

a.	Interphase is usually the longest phase.
b.	DNA replicates during the S phase.
c.	Cell division ends with cytokinesis.
d.	The cell grows during the G2 phase.

Figure 10-1

____ 124. Cell division is represented in Figure 10-1 by the letter

a.	A.
b.	B.
c.	C.
d.	D.

____ 125. The cell cycle is the

a.	series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide.
b.	period of time between the birth and the death of a cell.
c.	time from prophase until cytokinesis.
d.	time it takes for one cell to undergo mitosis.

Figure 10-2

____ 126. The structure labeled A in Figure 10-2 is called the

a.	centromere.
b.	centriole.
c.	sister chromatid.
d.	spindle.

____ 127. The structures labeled B in Figure 10-2 are called

a.	centromeres.
b.	centrioles.
c.	sister chromatids.
d.	spindles.

____ 128. During which phase(s) of mitosis are structures like the one shown in Figure 10-2 visible?

a.	anaphase and prophase
b.	prophase and metaphase
c.	metaphase only
d.	anaphase and interphase

____ 129. Which of the following is a phase of mitosis?

a.	cytokinesis
b.	interphase
c.	prophase
d.	S phase

____ 130. The first phase of mitosis is called

a.	prophase.
b.	anaphase.
c.	metaphase.
d.	interphase.

____ 131. During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell?

a.	prophase
b.	telophase
c.	metaphase
d.	anaphase

____ 132. Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?

a.	prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
b.	interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
c.	interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
d.	prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis

____ 133. What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?

a.	It helps separate the chromosomes.
b.	It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
c.	It duplicates the DNA.
d.	It divides the cell in half.

____ 134. The two main stages of cell division are called

a.	mitosis and interphase.
b.	synthesis and cytokinesis.
c.	the M phase and the S phase.
d.	cytokinesis and mitosis.

____ 135. One difference between cell division in plant cells and in animal cells is that plant cells have

a.	centrioles.
b.	centromeres.
c.	a cell plate.
d.	chromatin.

____ 136. During normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell having four chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each containing

a.	two chromosomes.
b.	four chromosomes.
c.	eight chromosomes.
d.	sixteen chromosomes.

____ 137. What happens when cells come into contact with other cells?

a.	They divide more quickly.
b.	They stop growing.
c.	They produce cyclins.
d.	They produce p53.

____ 138. Which of the following is a factor that can stop normal cells from growing?

a.	contact with other cells
b.	growth factors
c.	a cut in the skin
d.	cyclin that has been taken from a cell in mitosis

____ 139. Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. If cells are removed from the middle of the dish, the cells bordering the open space will begin dividing until they have filled the empty space. What does this experiment show?

a.	When cells come into contact with other cells, they stop growing.
b.	The controls on cell growth and division can be turned on and off.
c.	Cell division can be regulated by factors outside the cell.
d.	all of the above

____ 140. Which of the following explains why normal cells grown in a petri dish tend to stop growing once they have covered the bottom of the dish?

a.	The cells lack cyclin.
b.	The petri dish inhibits cell growth.
c.	Contact with other cells stops cell growth.
d.	Most cells grown in petri dishes have a defective p53.

____ 141. When cytoplasm from a cell that is undergoing mitosis is injected into a cell that is in interphase, the second cell

a.	stays in interphase.
b.	enters mitosis.
c.	stops making cyclin.
d.	loses its p53.

____ 142. In eukaryotic cells, the timing of the cell cycle is regulated by

a.	the centrioles.
b.	cyclins.
c.	the spindle.
d.	all of the above

____ 143. Cyclins are a family of closely related proteins that

a.	regulate the cell cycle.
b.	produce p53.
c.	cause cancer.
d.	work to heal wounds.

____ 144. Which of the following regulate(s) the cell cycle?

a.	growth factors
b.	cyclins
c.	p53
d.	all of the above

____ 145. Which of the following is an internal regulator of the cell cycle?

a.	cyclins
b.	growth factors
c.	the mitotic spindle
d.	cancer cells

____ 146. Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their

a.	size.
b.	spindle fibers.
c.	growth rate.
d.	surface area.

____ 147. Cancer cells form masses of cells called

a.	tumors.
b.	cyclins.
c.	growth factors.
d.	p53.

____ 148. A cell with a defective p53 gene is likely to

a.	divide regularly.
b.	stop dividing.
c.	accumulate chromosomal damage.
d.	combat tumors.

____ 149. Cancer affects

a.	humans only.
b.	most unicellular organisms.
c.	multicellular organisms.
d.	unicellular organisms.

____ 150. What is a tumor?

a.	an accumulation of cyclins
b.	a mass of cancer cells
c.	the rapidly dividing cells found at the site of a wound
d.	a defective p53 gene

____ 151. Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study

a.	flowering.
b.	gamete formation.
c.	the inheritance of traits.
d.	cross-pollination.

____ 152. Offspring that result from crosses between true-breeding parents with different traits

a.	are true-breeding.
b.	make up the F2 generation.
c.	make up the parental generation.
d.	are called hybrids.

____ 153. Gregor Mendel removed the male parts from the flowers of some plants in order to

a.	prevent hybrids from forming.
b.	prevent cross-pollination.
c.	prevent self-pollination.
d.	make controlled crosses between plants.

____ 154. The chemical factors that determine traits are called

a.	alleles.
b.	traits.
c.	genes.
d.	characters.

____ 155. Gregor Mendel concluded that traits are

a.	not inherited by offspring.
b.	inherited through the passing of factors from parents to offspring.
c.	determined by dominant factors only.
d.	determined by recessive factors only.

____ 156. When Gregor Mendel crossed a tall plant with a short plant, the F₁ plants inherited

a.	an allele for tallness from each parent.
b.	an allele for tallness from the tall parent and an allele for shortness from the short parent.
c.	an allele for shortness from each parent.
d.	an allele from only the tall parent.

____ 157. The principle of dominance states that

a.	all alleles are dominant.
b.	all alleles are recessive.
c.	some alleles are dominant and others are recessive.
d.	alleles are neither dominant nor recessive.

____ 158. When Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding tall plants with true-breeding short plants, all the offspring were tall because

a.	the allele for tall plants is recessive.
b.	the allele for short plants is dominant.
c.	the allele for tall plants is dominant.
d.	they were true-breeding like their parents.

____ 159. If a pea plant has a recessive allele for green peas, it will produce

a.	green peas if it also has a dominant allele for yellow peas.
b.	both green peas and yellow peas if it also has a dominant allele for yellow peas.
c.	green peas if it does not also have a dominant allele for yellow peas.
d.	yellow peas if it does not also have a dominant allele for green peas.

____ 160. A tall plant is crossed with a short plant. If the tall F₁ pea plants are allowed to self-pollinate,

a.	the offspring will be of medium height.
b.	all of the offspring will be tall.
c.	all of the offspring will be short.
d.	some of the offspring will be tall, and some will be short.

____ 161. In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed with a short plant. Short plants reappeared in the F₂ generation because

a.	some of the F2 plants produced gametes that carried the allele for shortness.
b.	the allele for shortness is dominant.
c.	the allele for shortness and the allele for tallness segregated when the F1 plants produced gametes.
d.	they inherited an allele for shortness from one parent and an allele for tallness from the other parent.

____ 162. In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed with a short plant. If alleles did not segregate during gamete formation,

a.	all of the F1 plants would be short.
b.	some of the F1 plants would be tall and some would be short.
c.	all of the F2 would be short.
d.	all of the F2 plants would be tall.

____ 163. When you flip a coin, what is the probability that it will come up tails?

a.	1/2
b.	1/4
c.	1/8
d.	1

____ 164. The principles of probability can be used to

a.	predict the traits of the offspring produced by genetic crosses.
b.	determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses.
c.	predict the traits of the parents used in genetic crosses.
d.	decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses.

____ 165. In the P generation, a tall plant is crossed with a short plant. The probability that an F₂ plant will be tall is

a.	50%.
b.	75%.
c.	25%.
d.	100%.

____ 166. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be

a.	hybrid.
b.	homozygous.
c.	heterozygous.
d.	dominant.

			Tt
		T		t
TT	T	TT		Tt
	T	TT		Tt

T	=	tall
t	=	short

Figure 11-1

____ 167. In the Punnett square shown in Figure 11-1, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting from the cross?

a.	About half are expected to be short.
b.	All are expected to be short.
c.	About half are expected to be tall.
d.	All are expected to be tall.

____ 168. A Punnett square shows all of the following EXCEPT

a.	all possible results of a genetic cross.
b.	the genotypes of the offspring.
c.	the alleles in the gametes of each parent.
d.	the actual results of a genetic cross.

____ 169. If you made a Punnett square showing Gregor Mendel’s cross between true-breeding tall plants and true-breeding short plants, the square would show that the offspring had

a.	the genotype of one of the parents.
b.	a phenotype that was different from that of both parents.
c.	a genotype that was different from that of both parents.
d.	the genotype of both parents.

____ 170. What principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each other’s inheritance?

a.	principle of dominance
b.	principle of independent assortment
c.	principle of probabilities
d.	principle of segregation

RrYy
		RY	Ry	rY	ry
	RY	RRYY	RRYy	RrYY	RrYy	Seed Shape R – round r – wrinkled
RrYy	Ry	RRYy	RRyy	RrYy	Rryy	Seed Color Y – yellow y – green
	rY	RrYY	RrYy	rrYY	rrYy
	ry	RrYy	Rryy	rrYy	rryy

Figure 11-2

____ 171. The Punnett square in Figure 11-2 shows that the gene for pea shape and the gene for pea color

a.	assort independently.
b.	are linked.
c.	have the same alleles.
d.	are always homozygous.

____ 172. How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose genotype was RrYY?

a.	2
b.	4
c.	8
d.	16

____ 173. If a pea plant that is heterozygous for round, yellow peas (RrYy) is crossed with a pea plant that is homozygous for round peas but heterozygous for yellow peas (RRYy), how many different phenotypes are their offspring expected to show?

a.	2
b.	4
c.	8
d.	16

____ 174. Situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominant over another allele for that gene are called

a.	multiple alleles.
b.	incomplete dominance.
c.	polygenic inheritance.
d.	multiple genes.

____ 175. A cross of a red cow (RR) with a white bull (WW) produces all roan offspring (RRWW). This type of inheritance is known as

a.	incomplete dominance.
b.	polygenic inheritance.
c.	codominance.
d.	multiple alleles.

____ 176. Variation in human skin color is a result of

a.	incomplete dominance.
b.	codominance.
c.	polygenic traits.
d.	multiple alleles.

____ 177. Gregor Mendel’s principles of genetics apply to

a.	plants only.
b.	animals only.
c.	pea plants only.
d.	all organisms.

____ 178. Why did Thomas Hunt Morgan use fruit flies in his studies?

a.	Fruit flies produce a large number of offspring.
b.	Fruit flies take a long time to produce offspring.
c.	Fruit flies share certain characteristics with pea plants.
d.	Fruit flies have a long lifespan.

____ 179. A man and a woman who are both heterozygous for normal skin pigmentation (Aa) produce an albino offspring (aa). Which of Mendel’s principles explain(s) why the offspring is albino?

a.	dominance only
b.	independent assortment only
c.	dominance and segregation
d.	segregation only

____ 180. The number of chromosomes in a gamete is represented by the symbol

a.	Z.
b.	X.
c.	N.
d.	Y.

____ 181. If an organism’s diploid number is 12, its haploid number is

a.	12.
b.	6.
c.	24.
d.	3.

____ 182. Gametes have

a.	homologous chromosomes.
b.	twice the number of chromosomes found in body cells.
c.	two sets of chromosomes.
d.	one allele for each gene.

____ 183. Gametes are produced by the process of

a.	mitosis.
b.	meiosis.
c.	crossing-over.
d.	replication.

Figure 11-3

____ 184. What is shown in Figure 11-3?

a.	independent assortment
b.	anaphase I of meiosis
c.	crossing-over
d.	replication

____ 185. Chromosomes form tetrads during

a.	prophase of meiosis I.
b.	metaphase of meiosis I.
c.	interphase.
d.	anaphase of meiosis II.

____ 186. What happens between meiosis I and meiosis II that reduces the number of chromosomes?

a.	Crossing-over occurs.
b.	Metaphase occurs.
c.	Replication occurs twice.
d.	Replication does not occur.

____ 187. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of

a.	diploid cells.
b.	haploid cells.
c.	2N daughter cells.
d.	body cells.

____ 188. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of

a.	two genetically identical cells.
b.	four genetically different cells.
c.	four genetically identical cells.
d.	two genetically different cells.

____ 189. Crossing-over rarely occurs in mitosis, unlike meiosis. Which of the following is the likely reason?

a.	Chromatids are not involved in mitosis.
b.	Tetrads rarely form during mitosis.
c.	A cell undergoing mitosis does not have homologous chromosomes.
d.	There is no prophase during mitosis.

____ 190. Which of the following assort independently?

a.	chromosomes
b.	genes on the same chromosome
c.	multiple alleles
d.	codominant alleles

____ 191. Linked genes

a.	are never separated.
b.	assort independently.
c.	are on the same chromosome.
d.	are always recessive.

____ 192. If the gene for seed color and the gene for seed shape in pea plants were linked,

a.	all of Mendel’s F1 plants would have produced wrinkled, green peas.
b.	Mendel’s F2 plants would have shown a different phenotype ratio for seed color and seed shape.
c.	Mendel’s F1 plants would have shown a different phenotype ratio for seed color and seed shape.
d.	all of Mendel’s P plants would have produced wrinkled, green peas.

____ 193. Gene maps are based on

a.	the frequencies of crossing-over between genes.
b.	independent assortment.
c.	genetic diversity.
d.	the number of genes in a cell.

____ 194. If two genes are on the same chromosome and rarely assort independently,

a.	crossing-over never occurs between the genes.
b.	crossing-over always occurs between the genes.
c.	the genes are probably located far apart from each other.
d.	the genes are probably located close to each other.

____ 195. The farther apart two genes are located on a chromosome, the

a.	less likely they are to be inherited together.
b.	more likely they are to be linked.
c.	less likely they are to assort independently.
d.	less likely they are to be separated by a crossover during meiosis.

____ 196. Avery’s experiments showed that bacteria are transformed by

a.	RNA.
b.	DNA.
c.	proteins.
d.	carbohydrates.

____ 197. What did Griffith observe when he injected a mixture of heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria and live harmless bacteria into mice?

a.	The disease-causing bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
b.	The mice developed pneumonia.
c.	The harmless bacteria died.
d.	The mice were unaffected.

____ 198. What would Hershey and Chase have concluded if both radioactive ³²P and ³⁵S were found in the bacteria in their experiment?

a.	The virus’s protein coat was not injected into the bacteria.
b.	The virus’s DNA was not injected into the bacteria.
c.	Genes are made of protein.
d.	Both the virus’s protein coat and its DNA were injected into the bacteria.

Figure 12-1

____ 199. Figure 12-1 shows the structure of a(an)

a.	DNA molecule.
b.	amino acid.
c.	RNA molecule.
d.	protein.

____ 200. Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?

a.	ribose + phosphate group + thymine
b.	ribose + phosphate group + uracil
c.	deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil
d.	deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine

____ 201. Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of

a.	adenine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of guanine molecules.
b.	pyrimidines in DNA is about equal to the percentage of purines.
c.	purines in DNA is much greater than the percentage of pyrimidines.
d.	cytosine molecules in DNA is much greater than the percentage of guanine molecules.

____ 202. DNA is copied during a process called

a.	replication.
b.	translation.
c.	transcription.
d.	transformation.

____ 203. DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,

a.	each with two new strands.
b.	one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c.	each with one new strand and one original strand.
d.	each with two original strands.

____ 204. During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases

a.	TCGAAC.
b.	GATCCA.
c.	AGCTTG.
d.	GAUCCA.

____ 205. In eukaryotes, DNA

a.	is located in the nucleus.
b.	floats freely in the cytoplasm.
c.	is located in the ribosomes.
d.	is circular.

____ 206. During mitosis, the

a.	DNA molecules unwind.
b.	histones and DNA molecules separate.
c.	DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
d.	nucleosomes become less tightly packed.

____ 207. Which of the following include all the others?

a.	DNA molecules
b.	histones
c.	chromosomes
d.	nucleosomes

____ 208. RNA contains the sugar

a.	ribose.
b.	deoxyribose.
c.	glucose.
d.	lactose.

____ 209. Unlike DNA, RNA contains

a.	adenine.
b.	uracil.
c.	phosphate groups.
d.	thymine.

____ 210. Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?

a.	ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine
b.	deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine
c.	phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine
d.	phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine

____ 211. How many main types of RNA are there?

a.	1
b.	3
c.	hundreds
d.	thousands

____ 212. Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?

a.	transfer RNA only
b.	messenger RNA only
c.	ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
d.	messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA

____ 213. Which of the following are copied from DNA?

a.	mRNA only
b.	mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA
c.	mRNA and tRNA only
d.	proteins

____ 214. What is produced during transcription?

a.	RNA molecules
b.	DNA molecules
c.	RNA polymerase
d.	proteins

____ 215. During transcription, an RNA molecule is formed

a.	that is complementary to both strands of DNA.
b.	that is identical to part of a single strand of DNA.
c.	that is double-stranded.
d.	inside the nucleus.

____ 216. Which of the following statements is true?

a.	A promoter is part of an intron.
b.	A pre-mRNA molecule is longer than the gene from which the molecule was transcribed.
c.	Introns have complementary sequences in DNA.
d.	mRNA molecules made from the same gene are always edited the same way.

Figure 12-2

____ 217. What does Figure 12-2 show?

a.	anticodons
b.	the order in which amino acids are linked
c.	the code for splicing mRNA
d.	the genetic code

____ 218. How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?

a.	3
b.	6
c.	9
d.	12

____ 219. Why is it possible for an amino acid to be specified by more than one kind of codon?

a.	Some codons have the same sequence of nucleotides.
b.	There are 64 different kinds of codons but only 20 amino acids.
c.	Some codons do not specify an amino acid.
d.	The codon AUG codes for the amino acid methionine and serves as the “start” codon for protein synthesis.

____ 220. What happens during the process of translation?

a.	Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
b.	The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
c.	Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
d.	Copies of DNA molecules are made.

____ 221. Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others?

a.	intron
b.	tRNA
c.	polypeptide
d.	anticodon

____ 222. During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the

a.	codon on the mRNA only.
b.	anticodon on the mRNA only.
c.	anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached only.
d.	codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached.

____ 223. Genes contain instructions for assembling

a.	purines.
b.	nucleosomes.
c.	proteins.
d.	pyrimidines.

____ 224. Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?

a.	rRNA
b.	tRNA
c.	mRNA
d.	RNA polymerase

____ 225. Which of the following statements is false?

a.	Some genes code for enzymes.
b.	The instructions for making some proteins are not specified by genes.
c.	An organism’s inherited traits depend on proteins.
d.	An organism’s genes determine its inherited traits.

____ 226. A mutation that involves a single nucleotide is called a(an)

a.	chromosomal mutation.
b.	inversion.
c.	point mutation.
d.	translocation.

____ 227. Which of the following is NOT a gene mutation?

a.	inversion
b.	insertion
c.	deletion
d.	substitution

____ 228. Which of the following is NEVER a frameshift mutation?

a.	substitution
b.	insertion
c.	deletion
d.	point mutation

____ 229. A promoter is a

a.	binding site for DNA polymerase.
b.	binding site for RNA polymerase.
c.	start signal for transcription.
d.	stop signal for transcription.

____ 230. Which of the following statements is true?

a.	A promoter determines whether a gene is expressed.
b.	An expressed gene is turned off.
c.	Proteins that bind to regulatory sites on DNA determine whether a gene is expressed.
d.	RNA polymerase regulates gene expression.

____ 231. If a specific kind of protein is not continually used by a cell, the gene for that protein is

a.	always transcribed.
b.	never expressed.
c.	turned on and off at different times.
d.	not regulated.

____ 232. In E. coli, the lac operon controls the

a.	breakdown of lactose.
b.	production of lactose.
c.	breakdown of glucose.
d.	production of glucose.

____ 233. A lac repressor turns off the lac genes by

a.	binding to the promoter.
b.	DNA polymerase.
c.	binding to the operator.
d.	binding to the lac genes.

____ 234. When E. coli are grown on glucose,

a.	lactose molecules bind to the lac repressor.
b.	the lac repressor binds to the operator of the lac operon.
c.	RNA polymerase binds to the promoter of the lac operon.
d.	the lac genes are transcribed.

____ 235. Which of the following is NOT generally part of a eukaryotic gene?

a.	operon
b.	TATA box
c.	promoter sequences
d.	enhancer sequences

____ 236. Gene regulation in eukaryotes

a.	usually involves operons.
b.	is simpler than in prokaryotes.
c.	allows for cell specialization.
d.	includes the action of an operator region.

____ 237. Specialized cells regulate the expression of genes because they

a.	do not want the genes to become worn out.
b.	cannot control translation.
c.	do not carry the complete genetic code in their nuclei.
d.	do not need the proteins that are specified by certain genes.

____ 238. Hox genes determine an animal’s

a.	basic body plan.
b.	size.
c.	skin color.
d.	eye color.

____ 239. Which of the following statements is false?

a.	Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
b.	Hox genes that are found in different animals are very different from each other.
c.	Hox genes control the normal development of an animal.
d.	Hox genes occur in clusters.

____ 240. Hox genes

a.	are regulated by operons.
b.	are found in bacteria.
c.	are not found in humans.
d.	determine the location of a dog’s ears.