Honors Bio Review Questions Midterm C 2004-05

Modified True/False

Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the sentence or statement true.

____ 1. People have used selective breeding to produce many different dog breeds. _________________________

____ 2. Without genetic engineering, horses would not have been domesticated. ______________________________

____ 3. Without selective breeding, dogs today would probably be less similar. _________________________

____ 4. Hybrids are often hardier than either of their parents. _________________________

____ 5. Animal breeders maintain cat and dog breeds by the process of hybridization. _________________________

____ 6. Exposing a population of plants to radiation or certain chemicals can increase the frequency of mutations that occur within the population. _________________________

____ 7. A polyploid plant has more than two copies of each gene. _________________________

____ 8. During DNA sequencing, if all the bands on an electrophoresis gel are the same color, the single-stranded DNA sample consisted of one kind of fragment. _________________________

____ 9. To transform a plant, scientists inject DNA into an adult plant. _________________________

____ 10. To produce a recombinant plasmid, the plasmid and the foreign DNA are cut with a different restriction enzyme. _________________________

____ 11. Scientists use genetic markers to determine which animal cells have been successfully transformed. _________________________

____ 12. Bacterial cells that have been transformed with a plasmid that carries a genetic marker for resistance to the antibiotic tetracycline will not survive in a culture treated with tetracycline. _________________________

____ 13. The fact that human genes inserted into bacteria produce proteins shows that the basic mechanisms of gene expression are different in bacteria and humans. _________________________

____ 14. Some transgenic animals grow faster because they have extra copies of growth hormone genes. _________________________

____ 15. To produce Dolly, Ian Wilmut removed the nucleus from a sheep’s body cell and fused it with a cell taken from another adult. _________________________

____ 16. In a human karyotype, 44 of the chromosomes are autosomes. _________________________

____ 17. In a human karyotype, 23 chromosome pairs are similar in size and shape. _________________________

____ 18. In humans, the mother determines the sex of the offspring. _________________________

____ 19. In a pedigree, if a mother is represented by a shaded circle and a father is represented by a shaded square, their children cannot be represented by half-shaded circles or squares. _________________________

____ 20. A pedigree showing the inheritance of Huntington’s disease within a family would not show any half-shaded symbols. _________________________

____ 21. If a person has blood type A, he or she cannot receive a blood transfusion from a person with blood type O. _________________________

____ 22. Two parents who have Huntington’s disease may produce an offspring who does not have Huntington’s disease. _________________________

____ 23. Chromosome 22 contains long stretches of DNA that do not code for proteins. _________________________

____ 24. A dominant X-linked trait would be more common in males than in females. _________________________

____ 25. If a cat has both orange and black spots, it is homozygous for the alleles on the X chromosome that code for spot color. _________________________

____ 26. A person who has Down syndrome has two copies of chromosome 21. _________________________

____ 27. Males generally do not have Barr bodies. _________________________

____ 28. DNA fingerprinting analyzes sections of DNA that have little or no known function but are similar from person to person. _________________________

____ 29. To locate genes within the human DNA sequence, scientists look for open reading frames within the sequence. _________________________

____ 30. Information from the Human Genome Project can be used to learn more about human diseases. _________________________

____ 31. After his voyage on the Beagle, Charles Darwin wondered whether similar species from the Galápagos Islands could once have been members of the same species. _________________________

____ 32. Charles Darwin came to realize that organisms of the same species are identical. _________________________

____ 33. According to Lamarck, the sea floor can be pushed up to form mountains by forces within Earth. _________________________

____ 34. In Charles Darwin’s time, many people thought that Earth and its living things were formed about a few thousand years ago. _________________________

____ 35. Evidence that the surface of a mountain was once under the sea includes the presence of marine fossils on the mountain. _________________________

____ 36. Lyell hypothesized that human populations are kept in check by war, disease, and famine. _________________________

____ 37. In 1858, Alfred Russel Wallace sent Charles Darwin an essay proposing an explanation for evolution that was very similar to Darwin’s. _________________________

____ 38. Artificial selection as practiced by farmers is also called natural selection. _________________________

____ 39. In natural selection, human breeders, rather than the environment, select the variations of traits to be passed to offspring. ______________________________

____ 40. According to Darwin, the word selection would be applied to organisms adapted to survive and reproduce in their particular environments. _________________________

____ 41. The term “fitness” refers to an organism’s ability to survive and reproduce in a specific environment. _________________________

____ 42. The fact that species today look different from their ancestors can be described as descent with modification. _________________________

____ 43. According to the concept of natural variation, living and extinct species evolved from the same ancestors. ______________________________

____ 44. According to Charles Darwin, individuals best suited to their environment survive and reproduce most successfully. _________________________

____ 45. According to Charles Darwin, members of a species must share limited resources. _________________________

____ 46. Because all members of a population can interbreed, biologists often study their genes as a single group. _________________________

____ 47. In a gene pool, as the relative frequency of one allele for a trait increases, the relative frequencies of other alleles for that trait decrease. _________________________

____ 48. Most inheritable differences are due to mutations that occur during the production of gametes. _________________________

____ 49. Mutations do not always affect an organism’s genotype—its physical, behavioral, and biochemical characteristics. _________________________

____ 50. A polygenic trait is controlled by one gene. _________________________

____ 51. On a graph, the distribution of phenotypes for a single-gene trait tends to form a bell-shaped curve. _________________________

____ 52. Natural selection on single-gene traits can lead to changes in allele frequencies. _________________________

____ 53. In a population of snakes with a range of body lengths, if the longest individuals have the highest fitness, disruptive selection is likely to occur. _________________________

____ 54. In small populations, an allele can become more or less common simply by chance. _________________________

____ 55. Genetic drift may occur when a small group of individuals colonize a new habitat. _________________________

____ 56. When mutations introduce new alleles into a population, genetic variation is disrupted. _________________________

____ 57. In a population of birds, if females prefer males with long tails, the population violates the condition of directional selection described by the Hardy-Weinberg principle. _________________________

____ 58. In the type of reproductive isolation called behavioral isolation, two populations are separated by barriers such as rivers or mountains. _________________________

____ 59. Two populations that have overlapping ranges can remain reproductively isolated through behavioral isolation or temporal isolation from each other. _________________________

____ 60. The first step of the speciation of the Galápagos finches likely was the arrival of founders from South America. _________________________

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 61. Luther Burbank produced over 800 varieties of plants by

a.	genetic engineering.
b.	transformation.
c.	selective breeding.
d.	DNA sequencing.

____ 62. Which of the following have been produced by selective breeding?

a.	horse breeds
b.	cat breeds
c.	dog breeds
d.	all of the above

____ 63. Selective breeding produces

a.	more offspring.
b.	fewer offspring.
c.	desired traits in offspring.
d.	transgenic organisms.

____ 64. Which of the following is NOT an example of selective breeding?

a.	allowing only the best milk-producing cows to reproduce
b.	crossing disease-resistant plants with plants that produce high food yields
c.	mating cats that have long hair with cats that have long tails
d.	allowing dogs to mate only once a year

____ 65. Which of the following is most likely to bring together two recessive alleles for a genetic defect?

a.	inbreeding
b.	hybridization
c.	genetic engineering
d.	transformation

____ 66. To make a new line of plants, Burbank used the process of

a.	inbreeding.
b.	hybridization.
c.	transformation.
d.	genetic engineering.

____ 67. The crossing of buffalo and cattle to produce beefalo is an example of

a.	inbreeding.
b.	hybridization.
c.	genetic engineering.
d.	transformation.

____ 68. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a.	Inbreeding and hybridization are opposite processes.
b.	A hybrid plant has all the characteristics of both its parents.
c.	Inbreeding can produce an offspring that has a defect that neither parent shows.
d.	Hybridization is used to produce new varieties of plants and animals.

____ 69. Scientists produced oil-eating bacteria by

a.	making bacteria polyploid.
b.	inbreeding bacteria.
c.	inducing mutations in bacteria.
d.	hybridizing bacteria.

____ 70. What is the ultimate source of genetic variability?

a.	inbreeding
b.	radiation
c.	hybridization
d.	mutations

____ 71. Breeders induce mutations in organisms to

a.	increase diversity in populations.
b.	make organisms more alike.
c.	avoid selective breeding.
d.	produce organisms with undesirable characteristics.

____ 72. Which of the following includes all the others?

a.	hybridization
b.	inbreeding
c.	selective breeding
d.	induced mutations

____ 73. Polyploidy instantly results in a new plant species because it

a.	changes a species’ number of chromosomes.
b.	produces a hardier species.
c.	causes mutations.
d.	all of the above

____ 74. Mutations are useful in selective breeding because they

a.	help maintain the desired characteristics of animal breeds.
b.	are usually found in hybrids.
c.	are usually beneficial.
d.	can be used to enhance the process of hybridization.

Figure 13-1

____ 75. What does Figure 13-1 show?

a.	gel electrophoresis
b.	DNA sequencing
c.	a restriction enzyme producing a DNA fragment
d.	polymerase chain reaction

____ 76. In Figure 13-1, between which nucleotides is the DNA cut?

a.	adenine and thymine
b.	cytosine and guanine
c.	thymine and cytosine
d.	adenine and guanine

____ 77. One function of gel electrophoresis is to

a.	separate DNA fragments.
b.	cut DNA.
c.	recombine DNA.
d.	extract DNA.

____ 78. The process of making changes in the DNA code of a living organism is called

a.	selective breeding.
b.	genetic engineering.
c.	inbreeding.
d.	hybridization.

____ 79. A DNA molecule produced by combining DNA from different sources is known as

a.	a mutant.
b.	a hybrid.
c.	a polyploid.
d.	recombinant DNA.

____ 80. Knowing the sequence of an organism’s DNA allows researchers to

a.	reproduce the organism.
b.	mutate the DNA.
c.	study specific genes.
d.	cut the DNA.

____ 81. Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis allows researchers to

a.	identify similarities and differences in the genomes of different kinds of organisms.
b.	determine whether a particular allele of a gene is dominant or recessive.
c.	compare the phenotypes of different organisms.
d.	cut DNA with restriction enzymes.

____ 82. On an electrophoresis gel, band B is closer to the positive end of the gel than is band A. Which of the following statements is true?

a.	Band B is more negatively charged than band A.
b.	Band B moved faster than band A.
c.	Band A is smaller than band B.
d.	Band B consists of larger DNA fragments than does band A.

____ 83. Genetic engineering involves

a.	reading a DNA sequence.
b.	editing a DNA sequence.
c.	reinserting DNA into living organisms.
d.	all of the above

____ 84. Which of the following are NOT used to read DNA sequences?

a.	nucleotides
b.	gels
c.	fluorescent dyes
d.	double-stranded DNA molecules

____ 85. Suppose a restriction enzyme recognizes the six-base sequence

AAGCTT

TTCGAA

in a double strand of DNA. Between which two nucleotides on each strand would the enzyme have to cut to produce a fragment with sticky ends that are four bases long?

a.	GC
b.	CT
c.	AA
d.	AG

____ 86. If two DNA samples showed an identical pattern and thickness of bands produced by gel electrophoresis, the samples contained

a.	the same amount of DNA.
b.	fragments of the same size.
c.	the same DNA molecules.
d.	all of the above

____ 87. During transformation,

a.	a prokaryote is changed into a eukaryote.
b.	a cell takes in DNA from outside the cell.
c.	foreign DNA is inserted into a plasmid.
d.	a cell is mutated.

____ 88. Scientists can transform plant cells by

a.	using the bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
b.	removing the plant cell walls and then mixing the cells with DNA.
c.	injecting DNA into the plant cells.
d.	all of the above

____ 89. A recombinant plasmid gets inside a bacterial cell by

a.	inducing mutations.
b.	injecting itself into the cell.
c.	transformation.
d.	recombining with the cell.

____ 90. Which of the following includes all the others?

a.	plasmid
b.	transformed bacterium
c.	foreign gene
d.	recombinant DNA

____ 91. Which of the following steps is NOT essential in producing recombinant DNA?

a.	Cut out a piece of DNA from a DNA molecule.
b.	Splice a piece of DNA into DNA from another organism.
c.	Use a restriction enzyme to form sticky ends in DNA.
d.	Read the DNA sequence of the piece of DNA to be cut and spliced.

____ 92. A gene that makes it possible to distinguish bacteria that carry a plasmid (and the foreign DNA) from those that don’t is called a(an)

a.	resistance gene.
b.	antibiotic.
c.	genetic marker.
d.	clone.

____ 93. Which of the following is often used as a genetic marker?

a.	a foreign gene
b.	a gene for antibiotic resistance
c.	a DNA sequence that serves as a bacterial origin of replication
d.	a nucleotide labeled with a fluorescent dye

____ 94. The transformation of a plant cell is successful if

a.	the plasmid that entered the cell reproduces inside the cell.
b.	the foreign DNA is integrated into one of the cell’s chromosomes.
c.	the cell reproduces.
d.	a plasmid has entered the cell.

____ 95. Which of the following is an example of successful transformation?

a.	injection of bacterial DNA into plant cells
b.	a defective gene in a cell being replaced with a normal gene
c.	bacterial cells taking in plasmids that have a genetic marker
d.	none of the above

____ 96. Suppose a bacterial culture were mixed with recombinant plasmids containing a gene for resistance to penicillin. The bacterial culture was then treated with penicillin. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a.	Those bacteria that contain the plasmid will survive.
b.	The penicillin will kill the bacteria that were transformed.
c.	The gene for antibiotic resistance is expressed in the bacteria that survive.
d.	Those bacteria that are successfully transformed will survive.

____ 97. What kind of technique do scientists use to make transgenic organisms?

a.	hybridization
b.	inbreeding
c.	inducing of mutations
d.	genetic engineering

____ 98. What is an advantage of using transgenic bacteria to produce human proteins?

a.	The human proteins produced by transgenic bacteria work better than those produced by humans.
b.	Transgenic bacteria can produce human proteins in large amounts.
c.	The human proteins produced by transgenic bacteria last longer than those produced by humans.
d.	Transgenic bacteria can produce human proteins used to make plastics.

____ 99. What has been an advantage of producing transgenic plants?

a.	increasing the food supply
b.	using more pesticides
c.	producing clones
d.	studying human genes

____ 100. To produce transgenic bacteria that make insulin, which of the following steps did scientists have to take first?

a.	Insert the human insulin gene into a plasmid.
b.	Extract the insulin from the bacterial culture.
c.	Use a restriction enzyme to cut out the insulin gene from human DNA.
d.	Transform bacteria with the recombinant plasmid.

____ 101. What are scientists more likely to learn from transgenic animals than from transgenic bacteria or transgenic plants?

a.	the structure of human proteins
b.	the process of cloning
c.	how human genes function
d.	how plasmids reproduce

____ 102. The Scottish scientist Ian Wilmut cloned a

a.	bacterium.
b.	sheep.
c.	plant.
d.	cow.

____ 103. Which of the following is a clone?

a.	the adult female sheep whose DNA was used to produce Dolly
b.	a transgenic mouse
c.	a bacterium taken from a bacterial colony
d.	the tobacco plant with the luciferase gene

____ 104. What kind of cell (or cells) was used to make Dolly?

a.	body cell only
b.	egg cell only
c.	egg cell and sperm cell
d.	body cell and egg cell

____ 105. Why is Dolly a clone?

a.	The source of her DNA was a single body cell.
b.	The DNA molecules in all her cells are identical.
c.	She was produced using the DNA from an adult’s egg cell.
d.	She is genetically identical to her offspring.

____ 106. How many chromosomes are shown in a normal human karyotype?

a.	2
b.	23
c.	44
d.	46

____ 107. Which of the following are shown in a karyotype?

a.	homologous chromosomes
b.	sex chromosomes
c.	autosomes
d.	all of the above

____ 108. Which of the following can be observed in a karyotype?

a.	a change in a DNA base
b.	an extra chromosome
c.	genes
d.	alleles

____ 109. In humans, a male has

a.	one X chromosome only.
b.	two X chromosomes.
c.	one X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
d.	two Y chromosomes.

____ 110. Human females produce egg cells that have

a.	one X chromosome.
b.	two X chromosomes.
c.	one X or one Y chromosome.
d.	one X and one Y chromosome.

____ 111. What is the approximate probability that a human offspring will be female?

a.	10%
b.	25%
c.	50%
d.	75%

____ 112. What percentage of human sperm cells carry an X chromosome?

a.	0%
b.	25%
c.	50%
d.	100%

____ 113. A human female inherits

a.	one copy of every gene located on each of the X chromosomes.
b.	twice as many sex chromosomes as a human male inherits.
c.	one copy of every gene located on the Y chromosome.
d.	all of the same genes that a human male inherits.

____ 114. In a pedigree, a circle represents a(an)

a.	male.
b.	female.
c.	child.
d.	adult.

____ 115. A pedigree CANNOT be used to

a.	determine whether a trait is inherited.
b.	show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next.
c.	determine whether an allele is dominant or recessive.
d.	none of the above

____ 116. Which of the following would you be least likely to see in a pedigree?

a.	All of the symbols are unshaded.
b.	All of the symbols are shaded.
c.	All of the symbols are half-shaded.
d.	About half of the symbols are circles.

____ 117. Which of the following is caused by a dominant allele?

a.	Huntington’s disease
b.	PKU
c.	Tay-Sachs disease
d.	none of the above

____ 118. Which of the following is determined by multiple alleles?

a.	Rh blood group
b.	ABO blood group
c.	PKU
d.	Huntington’s disease

____ 119. A person who has PKU

a.	inherited the recessive allele for the trait from one parent.
b.	inherited the recessive allele for the trait from both parents.
c.	is heterozygous for the trait.
d.	will not pass the allele for the trait to his or her offspring.

____ 120. Which of the following genotypes result in the same phenotype?

a.	I^AI^A and I^AI^B
b.	I^BI^B and I^Bi
c.	I^BI^B and I^AI^B
d.	I^Bi and ii

____ 121. If a man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B produce an offspring, what might be the offspring’s blood type?

a.	AB or O
b.	A, B, or O
c.	A, B, AB, or O
d.	AB only

____ 122. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a.	A person with Huntington’s disease might not pass the allele for the disease to his or her offspring.
b.	A person with Huntington’s disease might be homozygous for the disease.
c.	Huntington’s disease is caused by a recessive allele.
d.	A person who inherits one allele for Huntington’s disease will develop the disease.

____ 123. Sickle cell disease is caused by a

a.	change in one DNA base.
b.	change in the size of a chromosome.
c.	change in two genes.
d.	change in the number of chromosomes in a cell.

____ 124. In cystic fibrosis, a change in a single gene causes the protein called CFTR to

a.	become less soluble.
b.	fold improperly.
c.	destroy the cell membrane.
d.	transport sodium ions instead of chloride ions.

____ 125. Compared with normal hemoglobin, the hemoglobin of a person with sickle cell disease

a.	is longer.
b.	is shorter.
c.	has a different sequence of amino acids.
d.	is wider.

____ 126. Which of the following does NOT lead to cystic fibrosis?

a.	missing codon in mRNA
b.	shorter CFTR polypeptide chain
c.	point mutation
d.	absence of CFTR in cell membrane

____ 127. People who are heterozygous for sickle cell disease are generally healthy because

a.	they are resistant to malaria.
b.	they usually have some normal hemoglobin in their red blood cells.
c.	their abnormal hemoglobin usually doesn’t cause their red blood cells to become sickle-shaped.
d.	they do not produce abnormal hemoglobin.

____ 128. The sequencing of human chromosomes 21 and 22 showed that

a.	some regions of chromosomes do not code for proteins.
b.	all of the DNA of chromosomes codes for proteins.
c.	different chromosomes have the same number of genes.
d.	different chromosomes contain the same number of DNA bases.

____ 129. Alleles found on the same chromosomes

a.	are dominant.
b.	are never separated by recombination.
c.	are linked.
d.	contain repetitive DNA.

____ 130. The long stretches of repetitive DNA in chromosomes 21 and 22 are unstable sites

a.	that contain genes.
b.	where rearrangements occur.
c.	that cause genetic disorders.
d.	that do not allow crossing-over to occur.

____ 131. Many sex-linked genes are located on

a.	the autosomes.
b.	the X chromosome only.
c.	the Y chromosome only.
d.	both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.

____ 132. Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because

a.	fathers pass the allele for colorblindness to their sons only.
b.	the allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome.
c.	the allele for colorblindness is recessive and located on the X chromosome.
d.	males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness.

____ 133. Which of the following statements is true?

a.	Females cannot have hemophilia.
b.	The father of a colorblind boy may be colorblind.
c.	A sex-linked allele cannot be dominant.
d.	The mother of a colorblind boy must be colorblind.

____ 134. Which of the following form(s) a Barr body?

a.	the Y chromosome in a male cell
b.	the X chromosome in a male cell
c.	one of the X chromosomes in a female cell
d.	both of the X chromosomes in a female cell

____ 135. The formation of a Barr body

a.	causes the genes on one of the X chromosomes in a female cell to be switched off.
b.	always causes the same X chromosome in a female’s cells to be switched off.
c.	switches on the Y chromosome in a male cell.
d.	none of the above

____ 136. A cat that has spots of only one color

a.	has no Barr bodies.
b.	must be a male.
c.	must be a female.
d.	may be a male or a female.

____ 137. The failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis is called

a.	nondisjunction.
b.	X-chromosome inactivation.
c.	Turner’s syndrome.
d.	Down syndrome.

____ 138. Because the X chromosome contains genes that are vital for normal development, no baby has been born

a.	with one X chromosome.
b.	with three X chromosomes.
c.	without an X chromosome.
d.	with four X chromosomes.

____ 139. Which of the following combinations of sex chromosomes represents a female?

a.	XY
b.	XXY
c.	XXXY
d.	XX

____ 140. If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis,

a.	only two gametes may form instead of four.
b.	some gametes may have an extra copy of some genes.
c.	the chromatids do not separate.
d.	it occurs during prophase.

____ 141. Nondisjunction can involve

a.	autosomes.
b.	sex chromosomes.
c.	homologous chromosomes.
d.	all of the above

____ 142. Scientists test for alleles that cause human genetic disorders by

a.	making karyotypes.
b.	making DNA fingerprints.
c.	detecting the DNA sequences found in those alleles.
d.	making pedigrees.

____ 143. The process of DNA fingerprinting is based on the fact that

a.	the most important genes are different among most people.
b.	no two people, except identical twins, have exactly the same DNA.
c.	most genes are dominant.
d.	most people have DNA that contains repeats.

____ 144. What conclusion CANNOT be made from two DNA fingerprints that show identical patterns of bands?

a.	The DNA from the two DNA fingerprints almost certainly came from the same person.
b.	The DNA from the two DNA fingerprints definitely came from two different people.
c.	The DNA from the two DNA fingerprints definitely came from the same person.
d.	The DNA repeats that formed the bands in each DNA fingerprint are the same length.

____ 145. The Human Genome Project is an attempt to

a.	make a DNA fingerprint of every person’s DNA.
b.	sequence all human DNA.
c.	cure human diseases.
d.	identify alleles in human DNA that are recessive.

____ 146. The human genome was sequenced

a.	by sequencing each gene on each chromosome, one at a time.
b.	using DNA fingerprinting.
c.	by looking for overlapping regions between sequenced DNA fragments.
d.	using open reading frames.

____ 147. Which of the following information CANNOT be obtained from the Human Genome Project?

a.	causes of genetic disorders
b.	amino acid sequences of human proteins
c.	locations of genes on chromosomes
d.	whether an allele is dominant or recessive

____ 148. The purpose of gene therapy is to

a.	cure genetic disorders.
b.	determine the sequences of genes.
c.	remove mutations from genes.
d.	change dominant alleles to recessive alleles.

____ 149. Which of the following is the first step in gene therapy?

a.	splicing the normal gene to viral DNA
b.	allowing recombinant viruses to infect human cells
c.	using restriction enzymes to cut out the normal gene from DNA
d.	identifying the faulty gene that causes the disease

____ 150. Gene therapy is successful if the

a.	viruses carrying the replacement gene infect the person’s cells.
b.	replacement gene is replicated in the person’s cells.
c.	replacement gene is transcribed in the person’s cells.
d.	replacement gene is successfully spliced to viral DNA.

____ 151. During his voyage on the Beagle, Charles Darwin made many observations

a.	in England.
b.	in North America.
c.	on the Galápagos Islands.
d.	in Asia.

____ 152. On the Galápagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed

a.	completely unrelated species on each of the islands.
b.	species exactly like those found in South America.
c.	somewhat similar species, with traits that suited their particular environments.
d.	species completely unrelated to those found in South America.

____ 153. The species of finches that Charles Darwin found on the Galápagos Islands displayed different structural adaptations. One of the adaptations that Darwin noted was the

a.	similarities of the birds’ embryos.
b.	birds’ different-shaped beaks.
c.	length of the birds’ necks.
d.	number of eggs in each bird’s nest.

____ 154. Based on the adaptations Charles Darwin observed in finches and tortoises in the Galápagos, he wondered

a.	if species living on different islands had once been members of the same species.
b.	if finches and tortoises had originated from the same ancestral species.
c.	if all birds on the different islands were finches.
d.	why all tortoises on the different islands were identical.

____ 155. Darwin began to formulate his concept of evolution by natural selection after

a.	experimentation with animals.
b.	observations of many species and their geographical location.
c.	reading the writings of Wallace.
d.	agreeing with Lamarck about the driving force behind evolution.

____ 156. James Hutton’s and Charles Lyell’s work suggests that

a.	Earth is many millions of years old.
b.	Earth is several thousand years old.
c.	all fossils were formed in the last 1000 years.
d.	all rocks on Earth contain fossils.

____ 157. In the 1800s, Charles Lyell emphasized that

a.	the human population will outgrow the available food supply.
b.	all populations evolve through natural selection.
c.	Earth is a few thousand years old.
d.	past geological events must be explained in terms of processes observable today.

____ 158. One scientist who attempted to explain how rock layers form and change over time was

a.	Thomas Malthus.
b.	James Hutton.
c.	Charles Darwin.
d.	Jean-Baptiste Lamarck.

____ 159. James Hutton’s and Charles Lyell’s work was important to Darwin because these scientists

a.	explained volcanoes and earthquakes.
b.	explained all geologic events on Earth.
c.	suggested that Earth was old enough for evolution to have occurred.
d.	refuted the work of Lamarck, which was based on misunderstandings.

____ 160. What did Charles Darwin learn from reading the work of James Hutton and Charles Lyell?

a.	Earth is relatively young.
b.	Earth is very old.
c.	All geological change is caused by living organisms.
d.	The processes that formed old rocks on Earth do not operate today.

____ 161. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck proposed that organisms

a.	have an innate tendency toward complexity and perfection.
b.	have an innate tendency to become simpler as time passes.
c.	inherit all of the adaptations they display.
d.	belong to species that never change.

____ 162. Which is a major concept included in Lamarck’s theory of evolution?

a.	Change is the result of survival of the fittest.
b.	Body structure can change according to the actions of the organism.
c.	Population size decreases the rate of evolution.
d.	Artificial selection is the basis for evolution.

____ 163. Lamarck’s theory of evolution includes the concept that new organs in a species appear as a result of

a.	continual increases in population size.
b.	the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.
c.	an unchanging local environment.
d.	the natural variations already present within the population of organisms.

____ 164. In each generation, the wings of experimental fruit flies were clipped short for fifty generations. The fifty-first generation emerged with normal-length wings. This observation would tend to disprove the idea that evolution is based on

a.	inheritance of natural variations.
b.	inheritance of acquired characteristics.
c.	natural selection.
d.	survival of the fittest.

____ 165. The economist Thomas Malthus suggested that

a.	in the human population, people die faster than babies are born.
b.	there would soon be insufficient food for the growing human population.
c.	in the 1700s, England needed more housing.
d.	the majority of a species’ offspring die.

____ 166. The idea that only famine, disease, and war could prevent the endless growth of human populations was presented by

a.	Charles Darwin.
b.	Jean-Baptiste Lamarck.
c.	Thomas Malthus.
d.	Charles Lyell.

____ 167. Darwin realized that the economist Malthus’s theory of population control

a.	applied only to humans.
b.	could be generalized to any population of organisms.
c.	could be generalized only when populations lived in crowded conditions.
d.	explained why the number of deaths exceeded that of births.

____ 168. In 1859, Charles Darwin published his revolutionary scientific ideas in a work titled

a.	Principles of Geology.
b.	Essay on the Principle of Population.
c.	Evolution in Malaysia.
d.	On the Origin of Species.

____ 169. Darwin was prompted to publish his theory of evolution by

a.	an essay by Wallace on evolution.
b.	the publication of Lamarck’s theory of evolution.
c.	the vice governor of the Galápagos Islands.
d.	the work of Hutton and Lyell.

____ 170. When Charles Darwin returned from the voyage of the Beagle, he

a.	immediately published his ideas about evolution.
b.	realized his ideas about evolution were wrong.
c.	wrote about his ideas but waited many years to publish them.
d.	copied the evolutionary theory of Wallace.

____ 171. Why might Darwin have hesitated to publish his concept of evolution by natural selection?

a.	He realized it was not supported by his data.
b.	He felt it was too similar to Lamarck’s to be considered original.
c.	He was disturbed by his findings, which challenged fundamental scientific beliefs.
d.	He realized that his idea was contradicted by the work of Hutton and Lyell.

____ 172. When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is

a.	natural selection.
b.	artificial selection.
c.	artificial variation.
d.	survival of the fittest.

____ 173. According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, individuals who survive are the ones best adapted for their environment. Their survival is due to the

a.	possession of adaptations developed through use.
b.	possession of inherited adaptations that maximize fitness.
c.	lack of competition within the species.
d.	choices made by plant and animal breeders.

____ 174. When farmers select animals or plants to use for breeding, they look for

a.	species that are perfect and unchanging.
b.	homologous structures.
c.	traits that are produced artificially.
d.	natural variations that are present in a species.

____ 175. An adaptation is an inherited characteristic that can be

a.	physical or behavioral.
b.	physical or geographical.
c.	acquired during the organism’s lifetime.
d.	the result of artificial selection.

____ 176. When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, some antelopes are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin’s concept of natural selection might be used to describe this situation?

a.	acquired characteristics
b.	reproductive isolation
c.	survival of the fittest
d.	descent with modification

____ 177. Which statement about the members of a population that live long enough to reproduce is consistent with the theory of natural selection?

a.	They transmit characteristics acquired by use and disuse to their offspring.
b.	They tend to produce fewer offspring than others in the population.
c.	They are the ones that are best adapted to survive in their environment.
d.	They will perpetuate unfavorable changes in the species.

____ 178. Charles Darwin called the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its environment

a.	diversity.
b.	fitness.
c.	adaptation.
d.	evolution.

____ 179. According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have

a.	characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse.
b.	characteristics that plant and animal breeders value.
c.	the greatest number of offspring.
d.	variations best suited to the environment.

____ 180. Which of the following phrases best describes the results of natural selection?

a.	the natural variation found in all populations
b.	unrelated but similar species living in different locations
c.	the changes in the inherited characteristics of a population
d.	the struggle for existence undergone by all living things

Figure 15-1

____ 181. In humans, the pelvis and femur, or thigh bone, are involved in walking. In whales, the pelvis and femur shown in Figure 15-1 are

a.	examples of fossils.
b.	vestigial structures.
c.	acquired traits.
d.	examples of natural variation.

____ 182. Charles Darwin’s observation that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics supports the hypothesis that these finches

a.	have the ability to interbreed.
b.	acquired traits through use and disuse.
c.	all eat the same type of food.
d.	originated from a common ancestor.

____ 183. Modern sea star larvae resemble some primitive vertebrate larvae. This similarity may suggest that primitive vertebrates

a.	share a common ancestor with sea stars.
b.	evolved from sea stars.
c.	evolved before sea stars.
d.	belong to the same species as sea stars.

____ 184. Darwin’s concept of evolution was NOT influenced by

a.	the work of Charles Lyell.
b.	knowledge about the structure of DNA.
c.	his collection of specimens.
d.	his trip on the H.M.S. Beagle.

____ 185. People of Charles Darwin’s time understood that fossils

a.	were preserved remains of ancient organisms.
b.	were available for every organism that ever lived.
c.	were unrelated to living species.
d.	were evidence for the evolution of live on Earth.

____ 186. The number and location of bones of many fossil vertebrates are similar to those in living vertebrates. Most biologists would probably explain this fact on the basis of

a.	the needs of the organisms.
b.	a common ancestor.
c.	the struggle for existence.
d.	the inheritance of acquired traits.

____ 187. Charles Darwin viewed the fossil record as

a.	evidence that Earth was thousands of years old.
b.	a detailed record of evolution.
c.	interesting but unrelated to the evolution of modern species.
d.	evidence that traits are acquired through use or disuse.

____ 188. The hypothesis that species change over time by natural selection was proposed by

a.	James Hutton.